RB Leipzig’s talented midfielder Xavi Simons is on the verge of joining Tottenham Hotspur, with reports confirming that the Dutchman is scheduled for his medical examination in London. Renowned football journalist Fabrizio Romano revealed that Spurs have reached a full agreement with Leipzig for a transfer fee worth around €60 million. This deal positions Tottenham ahead of their Premier League rivals, Chelsea, who were also strongly interested in securing Simons’ signature this summer. Both London giants had shown keen interest in strengthening their midfield options with the Dutch international. However, Tottenham’s swift negotiations and final agreement with RB Leipzig appear to have given them the decisive edge in landing the 21-year-old playmaker. Nkunku’s Move to AC Milan Nears Completion In a parallel development, Chelsea forward Christopher Nkunku has touched down in Italy as he prepares to finalize his move to AC Milan. According to Sky Italy, the French forward is expected to undergo his medical assessment with the Serie A club today. This transfer comes after Chelsea reached a deal with AC Milan worth more than £36 million, ensuring Nkunku’s long-anticipated switch to San Siro becomes a reality this summer. The move marks an important chapter for the Frenchman, who joined Chelsea from RB Leipzig but has faced an injury-hit spell in the Premier League. Nkunku’s versatility and attacking flair are expected to bolster Milan’s attacking options as the Italian giants prepare for the new Serie A campaign and European competitions. Conclusion With both Simons and Nkunku closing in on medicals at their respective clubs, Tottenham and AC Milan fans are eagerly anticipating the official announcements. These transfers underline the intense competition in the summer market as top European clubs move strategically to reinforce their squads ahead of the new season.
Former Manchester United defender and football pundit, Rio Ferdinand, has offered his perspective regarding Arsenal’s reported interest in Crystal Palace midfielder Eberechi Eze. According to Ferdinand, the Gunners should only consider signing Eze if manager Mikel Arteta plans to play Declan Rice in a more defensive, holding midfield role. Speaking on his personal podcast on Monday, Ferdinand emphasized that Arsenal’s current midfield setup doesn’t have room for a player like Eze unless tactical changes are made—particularly involving Rice’s positioning. He stressed that without shifting Rice to a defensive midfield role, pursuing a move for Eze could create an imbalance or redundancy in the squad. Ferdinand elaborated: “Why would Arsenal even go after Eze? Where exactly does he fit into their midfield setup? You’ve already got Martin Zubimendi as a central anchor, Declan Rice occupying the left side of the No.8 position, and Martin Ødegaard holding the right side. Then there’s the presence of attacking wingers such as Gabriel Martinelli or even Noni Madueke—so if you bring in Eze, he essentially steps into Rice’s current position. But here’s the thing—if Declan Rice is placed back as a proper holding midfielder, then Eze would be a fantastic addition. I’d sign him without hesitation in that scenario.” Eberechi Eze, who has been a standout performer for Crystal Palace, had a £68 million release clause, which officially expired last week. Despite that, Arsenal are still reportedly exploring options for his acquisition. However, before making a formal move, the North London club is believed to be offloading several players to free up squad space and finances. At the moment, it remains uncertain whether Arsenal will push ahead with a formal offer. Still, Ferdinand’s insight adds to the ongoing debate among fans and pundits on how Arteta should shape his midfield going forward—especially with European competitions demanding squad depth and tactical flexibility. If Eze were to join Arsenal under the right tactical setup, it could mark a significant shift in Arsenal’s midfield dynamics, offering creativity and flair in advanced positions.
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Recent reports have revealed that several Premier League clubs are hesitant to pursue a deal for Napoli forward, Victor Osimhen. Despite being at the heart of transfer rumors for the past two summers, Osimhen has not secured a major move to England. During his time across the past three seasons with Napoli and Galatasaray, the Nigerian international has recorded an impressive 85 goals and 17 assists in 112 appearances. Last summer, Osimhen came close to joining Chelsea. However, the transfer fell through due to unresolved personal terms with the club. The 26-year-old striker has also attracted interest from top English sides like Arsenal and Manchester United. Although he was on loan at Galatasaray last season, Osimhen is actively pursuing a permanent switch ahead of the new campaign. Speaking on The Athletic Football Podcast, British football journalist David Ornstein acknowledged that Premier League teams are monitoring Osimhen. However, he disclosed there are a few critical issues keeping them from making a move. Clubs are reportedly concerned about the striker’s temperament and overall profile. Osimhen has had confrontations with various coaches throughout his career, including Finidi George, Luciano Spalletti, and Rudi Garcia, which raises red flags for potential suitors. Additionally, English clubs are reluctant to match his current wage demands. Osimhen currently earns approximately €200,000 net weekly and is not open to reducing that amount. Considering England’s high taxation rates, a club would need to pay over €300,000 gross weekly to meet his salary expectations—an amount that most Premier League sides find difficult to justify.
